Medicine College
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Answer 1
A terrible, bursting headache is the evaluation result that would make the nurse think the patient is having a hemorrhagic stroke.
A strong headache that is frequently referred to as the "worst headache ever" or "exploding" is a common sign of a hemorrhagic stroke. An ischemic stroke is more frequently accompanied by weakness and speech problems.
When a blood artery that is weak bursts, it causes a hemorrhagic stroke.
A blood artery rupture that results in hemorrhage into the brain causes a hemorrhagic stroke. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) and intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) are additional categories for hemorrhagic stroke (SAH). SAH and ICH both cause bleeding into the epidural space and brain parenchyma, respectively.
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The question is -
A client admitted to the emergency department is being evaluated for the possibility of a stroke. Which assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing a hemorrhagic stroke?
1. severe exploding headache
2. left-sided weakness
3. slurred speech
4. difficulty finding appropriate words
Related Questions
cms and the joint commission both require that healthcare professionals assess the work of colleagues in the same profession; this process is known as:
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CMS and the joint commission both require that healthcare professionals assess the work of colleagues; this process is known as: A. Peer Review
By preventing, diagnosing, treating, minimising, or curing disease, illness, injury, and other physical and mental impairments in humans, health care, often known as healthcare, aims to enhance people's overall well-being. Enhancing quality of life via improved health is the primary goal of healthcare. To maintain their valuation and be able to continue operating, commercial enterprises concentrate on making a profit. To live up to its commitment to society, health care must prioritise generating social profit. Health and wellbeing may be enhanced by aiding medical professionals in their communication.
cms and the joint commission both require that healthcare professionals assess the work of colleagues in the same profession; this process is known as?
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your assessment of a 5-year-old child reveals that he is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. treatment for this child should include:
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Your assessment of a 5-year-old child reveals that he is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. treatment for this child should include: lower the extremities and reassess the child.
In humans, the respiratory rate is calculated by measuring the number of breaths taken in one minute and the number of times the chest rises. During a magnetic resonance imaging scan, a fibre-optic respiratory rate sensor can be utilized to monitor patients. With fever, sickness, or other medical conditions, respiration rates may rise.
In the literature, inaccuracies in respiratory measurement have been noted.
One research observed substantial changes in respiration rates when respiratory rates were recorded using a 90-second count interval vs a full minute.
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before effectively responding to a sexual assault victim in the emergency department, it is essential that the nurse:
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Reassuring the client that she is safe in this location is the nurse's first line of defense.
Sexual abuse is the act of forcing a man, woman, or child to engage in sexual activity against their will. Sexually, one can be a boy, a girl, or a child. During a sexual argument, one party will act aggressively towards a victim they believe to be weaker than them.
Unfortunate victims of unsuccessful attempts frequently have serious worries and need reassurance of their safety. She might also become biased and untrusting. People will feel confident after hearing this claim.
By calling or even texting a helpline, you can get the assistance you need to create coping mechanisms or show that you are stronger than the situation. Visit a health group as well if you want to talk about your problems with people who have had similar traumatic occurrences.
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a client is receiving an ssri. the nurse would inform the client that the full benefits of the drug may not occur for which time period?
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When a client is receiving an SSRI, the nurse will let them know that it can take up to 4 weeks for all of the advantages of the drug to kick in.
What is a drug ?
A substance that has been approved by a pharmacopoeia or formulary. a drug that is meant to be used in the treatment, diagnosis, mitigation, or prevention of disease. a material intended to change the body's composition or any of its functions that is not food.
Before you start to feel the affects of SSRIs, it often takes 2 to 4 weeks. When you first begin taking SSRIs, you'll have regular appointments with your doctor. You should let them know if you don't feel any better after 4 to 6 weeks of the drug. Feeling agitated, jittery, or worried are typical adverse effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs),having a sick feeling. bloating and stomach pains.
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(p. 3) one of the general principles of psychoactive drugs is that "every drug has ____________."
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One of the general principles of psychoactive drugs is that "every drug has multiple effects.
What is a Drug?
This is also referred to as medication and it consists of chemical compounds which are used to treat different types of sicknesses and illnesses.
Psychoactive drugs on the other hand are different forms of substances that, when taken in or administered into one's system, affects the mental processes, such as perception, consciousness and examples include alcohol, caffeine etc.
One of the general principles of psychoactive drug use is that its effect depends on the individual's history and expectations and then every drug has multiple effects due to the differences in the body composition of individuals thereby making it the correct choice.
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a client is diagnosed with colon cancer, located in the lower third of the rectum. what does the nurse understand will be the surgical treatment option for this client?
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The nurse understand will be the surgical treatment option for this client is surgery to take away the phase of the colon with the most cancers (partial colectomy) together with close by lymph nodes, observed with the aid of using adjuvant chemo is the same old remedy for this stage.
The health practitioner takes out the a part of the colon with the most cancers and a small section of ordinary colon on both side. Usually, approximately one-fourth to one-1/3 of the colon is removed, relying on the dimensions and area of the most cancers.
The last sections of colon are then reattached.Surgery. The remedy of desire for colon most cancers is surgical resection, which includes getting rid of the most cancers via surgery. Surgery is achieved to take away the most cancers absolutely and reconstruct the bowel, if possible, so your postoperative bowel characteristic is ordinary or close to ordinary.
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a group recommends that a time-limited trial of a new intake procedure be initiated within the welfare office to evaluate if this is worthwhile. this is a
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A group suggests starting a temporary study of a new procedure inside the benefits office to see if it's worthwhile. A project modification has occurred.
How is a medical procedure defined?
A procedure is a method of action used to offer healthcare and is meant to produce a result. A medical test is a procedure performed with the goal of identifying, quantifying, or diagnosing a patient's experience or parameter.
What is the most accurate way to define procedure?
A procedure is a way of carrying out a work that evaluation and monitoring and instructions for every part of the job. Once developed, procedures are frequently followed consistently to ensure a common understanding of what personnel should do in various situations.
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a nurse is administering iv acyclovir to a client. the pharmacy sent the correct dose in an iv bag with the instructions to give over one hour. the nurse realizes that the dose was ordered to be administered 1 pm and it is now 1:45 pm. what should the nurse do?
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A nurse is administering iv acyclovir to a client and realizes that the dose was ordered to be administered 1 pm and it is now 1:45 pm therefore the nurse should do the following below:
Run the infusion as directed (over one hour) and note the time that it was started in the chart. Fill out any medication discrepancy reports that the institution requires when a medication is given late.
Who is a Nurse?
This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in the taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent various forms of complications.
In a scenario in which a drug was given late, a medication discrepancy report should be filled for future reference and the infusion should be given immediately the nurse remembers.
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a patient with a t4 spinal cord injury asks the nurse if he will be able to be sexually active. which initial response by the nurse is best?
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There are possibilities for sexual expression and reproduction, even though the patient's spinal cord injury will alter sexuality. The other information is likewise accurate, although the options will depend on the severity of the damage and the patient's personal sexual orientation, this will be the effect of T4 Spinal Cord injury.
Spinal Cord injury
Damage to the spinal cord that results in either temporary or permanent changes to its function is referred to as a spinal cord injury (SCI). Loss of muscular tone, sensation, or autonomic control may be one or more symptoms in the areas of the body serviced by the spinal cord below the injured level. Injury can happen at any level of the spinal cord and can be complete or incomplete, meaning that some nervous signals can pass through the injured area of the cord and reach the sacral S4-5 spinal cord segments. Complete injuries result in the complete loss of sensation and muscle function at lower sacral segments.
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a pediatric client has been prescribed dextroamphetamine (adderall) 2.5 mg po bid. how many mg would this client take each day?
Answers
Dosage of adderall: The maximum daily dose is 40 mg for adults and 30 mg for kids. Dosage of Adderall XR: The maximum daily dose is 40 mg for adults and 30 mg for kids.
What makes Adderall and dextroamphetamine different from one another?
Dextroamphetamine is the generic name for the stimulant drug dextrodrine, which contains the active component. A mixture of dextroamphetamine and amphetamine makes up Adderall, on the other hand. Dextroamphetamine is present, but there is also amphetamine present,
Dextroamphetamine IR 10 mg duration of action?
Despite the fact that the effects of dexedrine might last for up to ten hours, it takes the body 12 hours to eliminate only half of that quantity.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. The fine line between familiarity and boredom has been explained by the ________, which proposes that two
separate psychological processes are operating wh
en a person is repeatedly exposed to an ad.
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Two-factor theory, posits that when a person is repeatedly exposed, two distinct psychological processes are at work.
Which attitude theory asserts that people are driven to act to address discrepancies between attitudes and behaviors?
According to the cognitive dissonance theory, when a person's action conflicts with his or her opinions and beliefs, an underlying psychological tension results. An individual is thus motivated to adjust their attitude in order to achieve consistency between their beliefs and behaviors as a result of this underlying tension.
What does the theory go by that describes how attitudes encourage social behavior?
According to the functional attitude theory (FAT), attitudes and beliefs can affect a variety of psychological processes. When it comes to being utilitarian (useful), sociable, connected to values, or reducing cognitive dissonance, attitudes can have a big impact.
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when recording or documenting outcome attainment in the chart, nurses are to be very clear with the descriptions used. which term is appropriate?
Answers
"Demonstrated steps". Within 3 days of physical treatment, the client will be able to move securely with a walker inside the room. Results must be precise, quantifiable, doable, reasonable, and time-bound.
What does an outcome assessment look like in practice?
Surveys, interviews, focus groups, document analyses, and student self-reports are a few examples. Program-Level Measures: These are tasks or exams that evaluate students' knowledge and abilities at the program's conclusion rather than being integrated into any individual course.
What are some illustrations of patient results?
Results. Patient functional status (kept or improved), patient safety (protected or uninjured), and patient happiness are characteristics of patient outcomes (patient reporting of comfort and contentment).
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he emergency department physician explains to the nurse that the trauma client has a subluxation injury of the shoulder. the nurse understands this injury is a type of:
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he emergency department physician explains to the nurse that the trauma client has a subluxation injury of the shoulder. the nurse understands this injury is a type of: Dislocation
Trauma is a term used to describe experiencing very traumatic, frightful, or disturbing situations. When we discuss emotional or psychological trauma, we may be referring to situations or occurrences that we find upsetting. how our past experiences have impacted us. Even while depression might happen just once in a person's life, most people have many bouts. These episodes are characterised by symptoms that last for the majority of the day, almost every day, and may include: melancholy, tearfulness, emptiness, or hopelessness. angry outbursts, impatience, or frustration—even in the face of trivial issues.
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when a nurse removes an i.v. from an client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids), blood splashes into the nurse's eyes. what should the nurse do next?
Answers
Schilling's test determines a patient's capacity to absorb vitamin B12, aiding in the diagnosis of pernicious anaemia. When radioactive vitamin B12 has been consumed, the amount of vitamin B12 in the urine is assessed.
Iron deficiency anaemia is one of the hypochromic, microcytic anemias. Eggs are an excellent source of iron, which is essential in the diet. Organ and muscle (dark) meats, shellfish, shrimp, and tuna, enhanced, whole-grain, and fortified cereals and breads, legumes, nuts, dried fruits, and beans, oats, and sweet potatoes are some more foods high in iron. Citrus fruits and dark green leafy vegetables are both excellent sources of vitamin C. A good source of calcium is cheese.
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a client diagnosed with narcolepsy expresses reluctance to rely on medication therapy. what recommendation should the nurse provide?
Answers
An individual with narcolepsy shows resistance. To prevent sleep deprivation, the nurse offers keeping regular resting and waking intervals.
Describe narcolepsy.
Severe sleep disturbances and unplanned sleep episodes are characteristics of the daytime sleepiness disorder narcolepsy. People without narcolepsy usually are unable to remain awake for prolonged periods of time, regardless of the circ*mstance. Narcolepsy has the potential to seriously interrupt your daily routine.
What are two causes of narcolepsy?
It has been suggested that hormonal changes, such as those that occur around puberty or midlife, may act as narcolepsy triggers. a sickness, such as the avian flu, or the vaccine was using to prevent it can cause substantial psychological stress. The onset of narcolepsy symptoms typically happens between the ages of 15 and 30. A interval of sleep is frequently followed by a strong desire to sleep.
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a home care nurse counsels a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (als). which information would the nurse include in their discussion? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Answers
Options A and D, The information the nurse would offer in their conversation would include space-planned exercises during the day and an expectation of the usage of alternate methods of communication.
Spacing out the day's events is a tactic to assist the client save their energy. When speaking becomes challenging due to muscular weakness, the client will turn to alternate forms of communication (such as writing or technological gadgets).
To reduce the chance of contracting an infection the main cause of death and the client should stay away from crowds. Opioids are not prescribed to ALS patients because they may slow breathing.
Pain in the lower extremities is often not a symptom of ALS. Not shackles but braces and splints are permitted.
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The question is -
A home care nurse counsels a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which information would the nurse include in their discussion? Select all that apply.
A. Space-planned activities throughout the day.
B. Engage in social interactions with large groups.
C. Request an opioid if leg pain becomes excessive.
D. Anticipate the use of alternative ways to communicate.
E. Use leg restraints to decrease the risk of physical injury.
a patient receives an injection of 1.6 milligrams of a drug, and the amount remaining in the bloodstream t hours later is a(t)
Answers
1.6 milligrams of a medication are injected into the patient, and t hours later, the quantity still in the bloodstream is. A(t) = 1.6e−0.05t.
Which six medications are they?
The six drug classifications. There are six basic categories of drugs based solely on their chemical composition: alcohol, opioids, benzodiazepines, cannabinoids, barbiturates, and hallucinogens.
What categories do medicine names fall under?
The chemical name, the International Nonproprietary Name (INN), usually referred to as the approved or generic name, and the proprietary or brand name are the three main names that are used for pharmaceutical compounds. Narcotics, depressants, stimulants, hallucinogens, and marijuana are among the acceptable drug classes.
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ms. teller comes to clinic because she is experiencing numbness and tingling in her right leg. she denies having any pain. what does the nurse write down as ms. teller's symptom?
Answers
Ms. Teller symptoms are of Neuropathic pain.
The sensation of nerve pain is frequently described as shooting, numbness, stabbing, or scorching. It can occasionally be as abrupt and harsh as an electric shock. People who suffer from neuropathic pain are frequently extremely sensitive to touch and cold, and they may also be painfully sensitive to stimuli like brushing their skin.
Nerve pressure or nerve injury following surgery or trauma, viral infections, cancer, vascular malformations, alcoholism, neurological illnesses like multiple sclerosis, and metabolic conditions like diabetes are some of the common causes of neuropathic pain. It might also be a side effect of a few drugs.
Amitriptyline, which is also used to treat headaches and depression, is one of the key medications for neuropathic pain that is frequently prescribed.
Duloxetine is also used to treat depression and bladder issues.
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a client in her twenties has told the nurse that she will be going on a safari trip for her honeymoon and that she has been prescribed antimalarial prophylaxis. the nurse should follow up with what education?
Answers
A client in their early twenties who has informed the nurse that she would be taking antimalarial prophylaxis and going on a safari vacation for her honeymoon needs follow-up instruction from the nurse to persuade the client to use dependable contraception.
If the patient is taking the medication, they should notify their doctor immediately away if they develop significant chest discomfort, headaches, eye issues, or leg pain. These signs might indicate several dangerous illnesses, such as a heart attack, pulmonary embolism, stroke, liver, or gallbladder problems.
In the majority of malaria-endemic areas, atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone), doxycycline, & mefloquine are the medications of choice for malaria prophylaxis.
Mefloquine can be taken safely in the third and second trimesters of pregnancy, whereas chloroquine (Aralen) is safe to use throughout the whole pregnancy.
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the client is to receive cephalexin (ancef) 500 mg in 50 ml of normal saline intravenous piggyback. the medication is to infuse over 30 minutes. how many ml/hr would the nurse set the intravenous pump? enter the correct number only.
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100 ml/hr would the nurse set the intravenous pump, the client is to receive cephalexin (ancef) 500 mg in 50 ml of normal saline intravenous piggyback. the medication is to infuse over 30 minutes.
The IV medicine has a 50 mL capacity. The injection lasts for either 30 minutes or 0.5 hours. 100 mL per hour from 50 mL per hour.Total volume (in mL) divided by time (in minutes) and then multiplied by the drop factor is the method for determining the intravenous piggyback IV drip rate, which is expressed as 100 mL per hour. therefore The client will get an intravenous piggyback of cephalexin (ancef) 500 mg in 50 ml of normal saline. 100ml/hr of the drug is to be infused over 30 minutes.
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Recent research suggests that ______ in childhood is associated with increased risk later in life for nearly all classes of psychological disorders.
Answers
Trauma in childhood can develop into psychological disorders later in life.
What is trauma?
An emotional reaction to a stressful incident or set of events, such as accidents, or natural disasters, is known as mental trauma, or psychodrama.
Longer-term effects can include erratic emotions, flashbacks, relationship problems, and even physical symptoms like headaches or nausea.
Mental distress or suffering, which are both common human experiences, is not the same as trauma. Similar situations will elicit diverse responses from people.
To put it another way, not everyone encountering a potentially traumatic situation will experience psychological trauma. After experiencing severe trauma, some people will acquire post-traumatic stress disorder.
This difference in risk rate can be ascribed to protective qualities that certain people may possess and that help them deal with traumatic occurrences.
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Antithyroid medications are contraindicated in late pregnancy due to the fact that which of the following may occur? Select all that apply.
-Fetal hypothyroidism
-Fetal bradycardia
-Goiter
-Cretinism
-Fetal tachycardia
-Fetal hypothyroidism
Antithyroid medications are contraindicated in late pregnancy because the fetus may develop fetal hypothyroidism, fetal bradycardia, goiter, and cretinism.
Answers
The answer is Fetal hypothyroidism. Antithyroid medications are contraindicated in late pregnancy because the fetus may develop fetal hypothyroidism, fetal bradycardia, goiter, and cretinism.
An endocrine system illness called hypothyroidism, also known as low thyroid, underactive thyroid, or hypothyreosis, is characterized by insufficient thyroid hormone synthesis by the thyroid gland. It can result in a variety of symptoms, such as a decreased tolerance to cold, fatigue, constipation, a slow heartbeat, depression, and weight gain. Goiter can occasionally cause the front of the neck to expand. Untreated pregnancy-related hypothyroidism may result in congenital iodine deficiency syndrome or a delay in the growth and intellectual development of the unborn child.
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a client, diagnosed with trichom*onas vagin*lis, is being treated with metronidazole orally. what instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client to minimize the risk for reinfection?
Answers
Instruct her to have her partner treated is the instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client to minimize the risk for reinfection.
an infection caused by a parasite that is spread through sex.
One of the most prevalent sexually transmitted illnesses is trichom*oniasis. Having several sexual partners and not using condoms are risk factors.
Females with trichom*oniasis experience itchy genitalia, difficult urination, and unpleasant vagin*l discharge. Typically, men show no symptoms. Premature birth is one of the worries for pregnant women who have issues.
a flagellated, parasitic, anaerobic protozoan Trichom*onas vagin*lis is the causative agent of trichom*oniasis, a sexually transmitted disease. In developed nations, the pathogenic protozoan is the one that infects people most frequently. Men and women both contract infections at about the same rates, but their symptoms frequently differ.
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vitamin d metabolism is deranged in clients with chronic kidney disease (ckd). the nurse recognizes that which statement regarding vitamin d is correct?
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Patients with chronic renal disease have abnormal vitamin D metabolism. The claim made by calcitriol concerning vitamin D is true; kidneys transform inactive vitamin D into its activated state.
What frequently results in kidney disease?
The most frequent side effects of chronic renal failure include high blood pressure and hypertension (CKD). Your doctors will examine our healthcare history and possibly order certain tests to identify the origin of your kidney condition.
Is kidney disease treatable?
Although there is no known cure for chronic kidney disease (CKD), medications can assist manage the cancer's symptoms and stop it from getting worse. Your treatment will be based on your CKD stage. The main therapy that can assist you in maintaining your health involve alterations to your way of living.
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the health care provider prescribes raloxifene hydrochloride for a 60-year-old woman. the drug is effective if the client does not develop:
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it can develop scyolygement by font stop of
the nurse has completed client teaching about heart failure and prescribed medications that include digoxin and furosemide. the nurse documents that the teaching goals have been met if the client states knowing to report which symptom?
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Gaining two to three pounds in a matter of days. If you also use digoxin, let your doctor know before using furosemide.
To safely use both medications at the same time, you might need dose modifications or additional tests. Although digoxin and furosemide are frequently administered together, digoxin, potassium, and magnesium levels may need to be checked more frequently. If you experience symptoms like weakness, exhaustion, cramping in your muscles, nausea, decreased appetite, vision issues, or irregular heartbeats, you should let your doctor know. It is critical to inform your doctor about any extra medicines you are taking, including vitamins and herbal therapies. Never discontinue any medications without first visiting your doctor.
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for which adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the patient who has been administered antipsychotic drugs?
Answers
The adverse reaction should be Dry mouth.
Traditional antipsychotic drugs include a number of potentially harmful side effects, including extrapyramidal symptoms, tardive dyskinesia, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). The inhibition of alpha-adrenergic, dopamine, endocrine, histamine, and muscarinic receptors is the cause of these negative consequences.
Tell the patient to take their medication as prescribed. The day's doses of medication should be spaced out equally. To see the intended results from this medication, may take many weeks. Patients should be informed that sudden withdrawal may result in dizziness, nausea, vomiting, and uncontrollable mouth, tongue, or jaw movements, as well as the likelihood of extrapyramidal symptoms.
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a goiter can result from: a. too much or too little dietary iodine. b. choline supplementation. c. insufficient dietary copper. d. excess dietary chromium.
Answers
a goiter can result from too much or too little iodine in the diet.
The thyroid gland's uncontrolled development is referred to as a goitre (GOI-tur). A butterfly-shaped gland called the thyroid can be found near the base of the neck, just below the Adam's apple.
A goiter may develop from an abnormal cell proliferation that causes one or more lumps (nodules) in the thyroid or it may be an overall enlargement of the thyroid. Thyroid hormone levels may rise or fall, or there may be no change in thyroid function in the case of a goiter.
Iodine deficiency in the diet is the leading cause of goitres in the world. In the United States, where the consumption of iodized salt is widespread, goitres are brought on by illnesses that alter thyroid function or elements that influence thyroid development.
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the nurse is assessing a client who is immobile and notes that an area of sacral skin is reddened, but not broken. the reddened area continues to blanch and refill with fingertip pressure. what should the nurse do next?
Answers
The nurse should assess the area further to determine if there is any sign of infection.
If the area is warm and tender to the touch, the nurse should collect a specimen for culture. The nurse should also monitor the area for changes in color, swelling, and painful sensations. Depending on the findings, the nurse may recommend that the client receive treatment with a topical antibiotic, or the physician may order an oral antibiotic.
It is important to keep the area clean and dry and to encourage the client to move around as much as possible to prevent skin breakdown. If the reddened area does not improve with monitoring, or if the area becomes worse, the nurse should contact the physician for further evaluation. The nurse may also want to provide skin care measures to prevent further skin breakdown, such as keeping the area clean, dry, and free from rubbing or friction.
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when assessing a client who has been referred to the outpatient mental health clinic with symptoms of depression, the psychiatric nurse should closely observe the client's affect and which assessment component?
Answers
Answer:
Physical appearance
Explanation:
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assume that chessboard has been declared to be a two-dimensional array of strings. write a statement that instantiates an 8x8 array of strings and assign it to chessboard. which of the following statements about within-participant designs are false? group of answer choices carryover can be a problem in within-group designs they are less time consuming for participants than between-group designs they require fewer participants than between-group designs none of the above Caffeine is an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase. Therefore, the cells of a person who has recently consumed coffee would have increased levels of which of the following molecules? O CAMP activated proteins O phosphorylated proteins O adenylyl cyclase why are 4 h needed for every atp synthesized and exported by mitochondria, even though only 3 h need to be translocated by the atp synthase complex to synthesize one atp? when nellie newton dangles by a pair of ropes, each at different angle from the vertical, the rope tension will be greater in the rope having the ___ the nurse is caring for a patient receiving cardiotonic drugs. the patient has edema. which intervention should be taken to alleviate edema? a nurse manager seems to ignore any conflict on the unit. this is identified as what type of conflict management strategy? group of answer choices accomodating. competing. avoiding collaborating. prompt treatment of botulism is imperative because the illness has a high mortality rate if untreated. why does botulism have such a high mortality rate? Diversification is possibly the best technique for reducing the problems associated with international transactions. Provide one example each of international financial diversification and international operational diversification and explain how the action reduces risk. Lit three thing from the firt half of the tory that Serenawould conider "real adventure. " Consider again the electric circuit in Problem 21 of Section 7.6. This circuit is described by the system of differential equations ()=(-4,-)(0) a. Show that the eigenvalues are real and equal if L = 4R2C. b. Suppose that R=1.12, C = 1 F, and L = 4 H. Suppose also that I(0) = 1 A and V(0) = 2 V. Find I(t) and V(t). which of the following activities is not a step you can take to reduce your personal health care costs? the 802.11 point coordination function (pcf) is an optional feature that enables the wlan to operate as a centralized access network. true or false how much does it cost to buy 1500g of cornflakes Once a computer. is installed, the attacker can gain full access to the a. worm b. botnet c. zombie d. rootkit mcdougal products is considering the purchase of new equipment to place in its factory. the equipment would cost $365,000, have a ten-year useful life and a salvage value at the end of its useful life of $65,000. the company estimates that annual revenues and expenses associated with the equipment would be as follows: the payback period of the new equipment is closest to: what political process is most likely to be used when the costs of a policy are broadly distributed and its benefits are concentrated? responses client politics client politics majoritarian politics Jose deposits $2,100.00 into a savings account at her credit union. The annual compound interest rate is 1.5%. How much money will Jose have after 20 years? Without air resistance, a projectile fired horizontally at 8 km/s from a mountain top willa. return to its starting position and repeat its falling behavior.b. accelerate downward at g as it moves horizontally.c. trace a curve that matches Earth's curvature.d. all of the above.e. none of the above.d. all of the above. To test if an observed frequency distribution with five classes is normally distributed, we need to find _____.a. The t-statisticb. The expected, normally distributed class frequenciesc. The class marksd. The class relative frequencies